Free practice questions

Human Anatomy & Physiology — Example Quiz

Thirty free human anatomy and physiology practice questions covering the skeletal, muscular, nervous, cardiovascular and renal systems, with explanations.

30 questions anatomyphysiologybschuman-biology

Example study questions — not affiliated with, endorsed by, or derived from any examining body's exam papers or question banks.

  1. 1

    In the standard anatomical position, which of the following is true?

    • A The body is lying supine with the palms facing down
    • B The arms are raised and the thumbs point medially
    • C The body is standing erect, feet slightly apart, palms facing forward
    • D The body is prone with the head turned to the side
    Show answer

    Answer: C

    The anatomical position is the universal reference posture: standing erect, face forward, feet slightly apart and flat, arms at the sides with the palms facing anteriorly (supinated). All directional terms (anterior, posterior, medial, etc.) are defined relative to this position.

  2. 2

    A sagittal plane divides the body into which two portions?

    • A Superior and inferior
    • B Left and right
    • C Anterior and posterior
    • D Proximal and distal
    Show answer

    Answer: B

    The sagittal plane runs vertically and divides the body into left and right portions; a midsagittal (median) plane does so into equal halves. The frontal (coronal) plane separates anterior from posterior, and the transverse plane separates superior from inferior.

  3. 3 Select all that apply

    Which of the following are directional term pairs correctly matched as opposites? Select three.

    • A Proximal — Distal
    • B Superficial — Deep
    • C Medial — Ventral
    • D Superior — Inferior
    Show answer

    Answer: A, B, D

    Medial pairs with lateral, not ventral (ventral pairs with dorsal). Proximal/distal, superficial/deep, and superior/inferior are all valid opposing pairs.

  4. 4

    How many bones are found in the typical adult human skeleton?

    • A 186
    • B 196
    • C 201
    • D 206
    Show answer

    Answer: D

    The adult human skeleton contains 206 bones. Infants are born with roughly 270; many fuse during growth (for example, the frontal bone and the sacral vertebrae).

  5. 5

    The structural unit of compact bone is the:

    • A Trabecula
    • B Osteon (Haversian system)
    • C Lacuna
    • D Epiphysis
    Show answer

    Answer: B

    Compact bone is organised into osteons (Haversian systems) — concentric lamellae of bone matrix surrounding a central (Haversian) canal that carries blood vessels and nerves. Osteocytes sit in small cavities called lacunae between the lamellae.

  6. 6

    Which cell type is primarily responsible for bone resorption?

    • A Osteoclast
    • B Osteoblast
    • C Osteocyte
    • D Chondrocyte
    Show answer

    Answer: A

    Osteoclasts are large multinucleated cells that break down (resorb) bone matrix. Osteoblasts build new bone, osteocytes are mature bone cells maintaining the matrix, and chondrocytes are found in cartilage.

  7. 7 Select all that apply

    The rotator cuff of the shoulder is formed by which four muscles (the "SITS" muscles)? Select four.

    • A Supraspinatus
    • B Infraspinatus
    • C Teres minor
    • D Subscapularis
    Show answer

    Answer: A, B, C, D

    The rotator cuff comprises Supraspinatus, Infraspinatus, Teres minor, and Subscapularis (mnemonic "SITS"). Together they stabilise the glenohumeral joint. Teres major and deltoid are not part of the cuff.

  8. 8

    During skeletal muscle contraction described by the sliding filament theory, which band of the sarcomere does not change in length?

    • A I band
    • B H zone
    • C A band
    • D The distance between Z discs
    Show answer

    Answer: C

    During contraction the sarcomere shortens: the I band and H zone narrow and the Z discs move closer together. The A band (the length of the thick/myosin filaments) stays constant because the filaments slide rather than shorten.

  9. 9

    Which ion, released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum, directly triggers cross-bridge formation by binding troponin?

    • A Sodium (Na⁺)
    • B Calcium (Ca²⁺)
    • C Potassium (K⁺)
    • D Chloride (Cl⁻)
    Show answer

    Answer: B

    Calcium released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds troponin, causing tropomyosin to shift and expose the myosin-binding sites on actin. This allows cross-bridges to form and the power stroke to occur.

  10. 10 Select all that apply

    Which two of the following are primary germ layers derivatives correctly paired? Select two.

    • A Ectoderm — skeletal muscle
    • B Ectoderm — nervous system
    • C Endoderm — gut epithelium
    • D Mesoderm — epidermis
    Show answer

    Answer: B, C

    Ectoderm gives rise to the nervous system and epidermis; endoderm forms the epithelial lining of the gut and respiratory tract; mesoderm forms muscle, bone, and connective tissue. Skeletal muscle is mesodermal, and the epidermis is ectodermal — so A and D are mismatched.

  11. 11

    Which structural class of neuron is most common in the human CNS?

    • A Unipolar
    • B Bipolar
    • C Multipolar
    • D Anaxonic
    Show answer

    Answer: C

    Multipolar neurons — one axon and multiple dendrites — are by far the most common neuron type in the central nervous system, including motor neurons and interneurons. Bipolar neurons are found in special senses (e.g., retina), and unipolar (pseudounipolar) neurons are typical sensory neurons.

  12. 12

    Which glial cell forms the myelin sheath in the central nervous system?

    • A Schwann cell
    • B Oligodendrocyte
    • C Astrocyte
    • D Microglia
    Show answer

    Answer: B

    Oligodendrocytes myelinate axons in the CNS (a single oligodendrocyte can myelinate several axons). In the PNS, Schwann cells perform this role. Astrocytes provide metabolic/structural support, and microglia are the resident immune cells.

  13. 13

    The vagus nerve is which cranial nerve, and what is its primary functional significance?

    • A CN V — the largest cranial nerve
    • B CN VII — controls facial expression
    • C CN VIII — hearing and balance
    • D CN X — major parasympathetic supply to thoracic and abdominal viscera
    Show answer

    Answer: D

    The vagus nerve is cranial nerve X. It carries the majority of parasympathetic fibres to the heart, lungs, and much of the gastrointestinal tract, and has the widest distribution of any cranial nerve.

  14. 14

    The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is also described as the:

    • A Thoracolumbar division
    • B Craniosacral division
    • C Somatic division
    • D Enteric division
    Show answer

    Answer: A

    Sympathetic preganglionic neurons arise from the thoracic and lumbar spinal cord (T1–L2), giving the "thoracolumbar" designation. The parasympathetic division is "craniosacral" (cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X and sacral segments S2–S4).

  15. 15

    Which region of the brain is chiefly responsible for coordinating movement, posture, and balance?

    • A Medulla oblongata
    • B Hypothalamus
    • C Cerebellum
    • D Thalamus
    Show answer

    Answer: C

    The cerebellum fine-tunes motor activity, coordinates voluntary movement, and maintains balance and posture. The medulla controls autonomic reflexes (heart rate, breathing), the hypothalamus governs homeostasis, and the thalamus is a sensory relay station.

  16. 16 Put these in order

    Arrange the following structures in the correct order for blood flow through the right side of the heart and pulmonary circuit, starting from deoxygenated blood entering the heart:

    • A Right ventricle
    • B Pulmonary arteries to the lungs
    • C Right atrium
    • D Pulmonary (semilunar) valve
    Show answer

    Correct order

    1. C Right atrium
    2. A Right ventricle
    3. D Pulmonary (semilunar) valve
    4. B Pulmonary arteries to the lungs

    Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium (via the venae cavae), passes through the tricuspid valve into the right ventricle, then through the pulmonary semilunar valve into the pulmonary arteries and on to the lungs for gas exchange.

  17. 17

    Which valve lies between the left atrium and left ventricle?

    • A Tricuspid valve
    • B Bicuspid (mitral) valve
    • C Aortic semilunar valve
    • D Pulmonary semilunar valve
    Show answer

    Answer: B

    The bicuspid (mitral) valve separates the left atrium and left ventricle. The tricuspid valve is the right atrioventricular valve; the semilunar valves guard the exits to the aorta and pulmonary trunk.

  18. 18 Put these in order

    Place the components of the cardiac conduction system in the order an impulse travels:

    • A Sinoatrial (SA) node
    • B Atrioventricular (AV) node
    • C Bundle of His (AV bundle)
    • D Purkinje fibres
    Show answer

    Correct order

    1. A Sinoatrial (SA) node
    2. B Atrioventricular (AV) node
    3. C Bundle of His (AV bundle)
    4. D Purkinje fibres

    The impulse originates at the SA node (the pacemaker), spreads across the atria to the AV node, is delayed briefly, then travels down the Bundle of His and its branches to the Purkinje fibres, which distribute it through the ventricular myocardium.

  19. 19 Select all that apply

    Which two layers make up the wall of a typical artery alongside the tunica media? Select two.

    • A Tunica intima
    • B Tunica serosa
    • C Tunica externa (adventitia)
    • D Tunica mucosa
    Show answer

    Answer: A, C

    Blood vessel walls have three tunics: tunica intima (inner endothelium), tunica media (smooth muscle and elastic tissue — thickest in arteries), and tunica externa/adventitia (outer connective tissue). Serosa and mucosa are layers of hollow organs like the gut, not blood vessels.

  20. 20

    Gas exchange in the lungs occurs across which structures?

    • A Bronchi
    • B Terminal bronchioles
    • C Trachea
    • D Alveoli
    Show answer

    Answer: D

    Gas exchange occurs across the walls of the alveoli, where the thin respiratory membrane (alveolar epithelium + capillary endothelium fused basement membranes) allows oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse between air and blood. The bronchi, bronchioles, and trachea are conducting passages only.

  21. 21

    Which nerve provides the primary motor supply to the diaphragm?

    • A Vagus nerve
    • B Phrenic nerve
    • C Intercostal nerves
    • D Accessory nerve
    Show answer

    Answer: B

    The phrenic nerve (arising from cervical roots C3–C5, "C3, 4, 5 keeps the diaphragm alive") supplies motor innervation to the diaphragm, the principal muscle of respiration.

  22. 22 Put these in order

    Arrange the following segments of the gastrointestinal tract in the order food passes through them:

    • A Stomach
    • B Oesophagus
    • C Pharynx
    • D Small intestine
    Show answer

    Correct order

    1. B Oesophagus
    2. C Pharynx
    3. A Stomach
    4. D Small intestine

    After the mouth, food passes through the pharynx, down the oesophagus, into the stomach, and then into the small intestine (duodenum → jejunum → ileum) before reaching the large intestine. Note: option C (pharynx) precedes B (oesophagus).

  23. 23 Select all that apply

    Which of the following are accessory organs of the digestive system (they aid digestion but food does not pass through them)? Select three.

    • A Liver
    • B Pancreas
    • C Gallbladder
    • D Ileum
    Show answer

    Answer: A, B, C

    The liver, pancreas, and gallbladder are accessory digestive organs — they secrete substances (bile, enzymes) into the tract but are not part of the alimentary canal itself. The ileum is the final segment of the small intestine, part of the tract proper.

  24. 24

    In the nephron, filtration of blood first occurs at the:

    • A Glomerulus (within the renal corpuscle)
    • B Proximal convoluted tubule
    • C Loop of Henle
    • D Collecting duct
    Show answer

    Answer: A

    Filtration begins at the glomerulus, a capillary tuft enclosed by the glomerular (Bowman's) capsule; together they form the renal corpuscle. Filtrate then moves through the proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule, and collecting duct, where reabsorption and secretion refine it.

  25. 25 Put these in order

    Trace the path of filtrate through the nephron in order:

    • A Proximal convoluted tubule
    • B Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
    • C Loop of Henle
    • D Distal convoluted tubule
    Show answer

    Correct order

    1. B Glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
    2. A Proximal convoluted tubule
    3. C Loop of Henle
    4. D Distal convoluted tubule

    Filtrate collects in the glomerular capsule, then flows through the proximal convoluted tubule, into the loop of Henle, and on to the distal convoluted tubule before draining into the collecting duct.

  26. 26

    Which hormone is secreted by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets (islets of Langerhans)?

    • A Glucagon
    • B Somatostatin
    • C Insulin
    • D Cortisol
    Show answer

    Answer: C

    Beta cells secrete insulin, which lowers blood glucose. Alpha cells secrete glucagon (raises glucose), and delta cells secrete somatostatin. Cortisol is produced by the adrenal cortex, not the pancreas.

  27. 27

    Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is released from the posterior pituitary but is actually synthesised in the:

    • A Anterior pituitary
    • B Hypothalamus
    • C Adrenal medulla
    • D Pineal gland
    Show answer

    Answer: B

    ADH (vasopressin) and oxytocin are synthesised by hypothalamic neurons and transported down their axons for storage and release from the posterior pituitary (neurohypophysis). The posterior pituitary is neural tissue and does not manufacture its own hormones.

  28. 28

    The left lung has three lobes, whereas the right lung has two.

    • A True
    • B False
    Show answer

    Answer: B

    It is the reverse: the right lung has three lobes (superior, middle, inferior), and the left lung has two (superior and inferior), with the cardiac notch and lingula accommodating the heart.

  29. 29

    Which is the correct order of epidermal layers, from deepest to most superficial, in thick skin?

    • A Corneum → lucidum → granulosum → spinosum → basale
    • B Basale → granulosum → spinosum → lucidum → corneum
    • C Basale → spinosum → granulosum → lucidum → corneum
    • D Spinosum → basale → granulosum → corneum → lucidum
    Show answer

    Answer: C

    From deep to superficial, the epidermis of thick skin is: stratum basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, and corneum (mnemonic: "Come, Let's Get Sun Burnt" read superficial-to-deep). The stratum lucidum is present only in thick, hairless skin such as the palms and soles.

  30. 30 Select all that apply

    Which of the following are recognised as the four primary tissue types of the human body? Select four.

    • A Epithelial tissue
    • B Connective tissue
    • C Muscle tissue
    • D Nervous tissue
    Show answer

    Answer: A, B, C, D

    The body's four primary tissue types are epithelial (covering/lining), connective (support and binding — including blood and bone), muscle (contraction), and nervous (communication). All organs are built from combinations of these four.


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